I was just going by experience as when I had my accident the insurance company asked if the girl had gotten charged with running a stop sign as they would use that to determine fault and the police officer did not as he couldn't because the HTA did not apply in the parking lot.
Charges do not need to be laid in order for the other driver to be deemed at fault. You would have been covered under 16.(2) or (3), and the OP under 16.(4), as per the Insurance Act regulations:
16. (1) This section applies with respect to incidents in parking lots. R.R.O. 1990, Reg. 668, s. 16 (1).
(2) The degree of fault of a driver involved in an incident on a thoroughfare shall be determined in accordance with this Regulation as if the thoroughfare were a road. R.R.O. 1990, Reg. 668, s. 16 (2).
(3) If automobile “A” is leaving a feeder lane and fails to yield the right of way to automobile “B” on a thoroughfare, the driver of automobile “A” is 100 per cent at fault and the driver of automobile “B” is not at fault for the incident. R.R.O. 1990, Reg. 668, s. 16 (3).
(4) If automobile “A” is leaving a parking space and fails to yield the right of way to automobile “B” on a feeder lane or a thoroughfare, the driver of automobile “A” is 100 per cent at fault and the driver of automobile “B” is not at fault for the incident. R.R.O. 1990, Reg. 668, s. 16 (4).
(5) In this section,
“feeder lane” means a road in a parking lot other than a thoroughfare;
“thoroughfare” means a main road for passage into, through or out of a parking lot. R.R.O. 1990, Reg. 668, s. 16 (5).
But then again that only has 2 examples
More than just two. Also, 17.(1) would apply in parking lots:
17. (1) If automobile “A” is parked when it is struck by automobile “B”, the driver of automobile “A” is not at fault and the driver of automobile “B” is 100 per cent at fault for the incident. R.R.O. 1990, Reg. 668, s. 17 (1).
I understand they go with the most probable scenario as if they went beyond a reasonable doubt it may never get settled.
I guess I must reword my No-fault as 50/50 as that is what I meant as No-fault.
I know this as I just went through this when someone backed into my motorcycle.
If someone backs into your motorcycle whether parked or with it running and you still on it, they would be 100% at fault. You could go through your insurance with no repercussions.
I never said you should backdoor repair your vehicle if the other person is at fault, I did that as my accident was a 50/50 and my only damage to my truck was a cracked bumper and I could repair it myself for cheaper then the deductable and I did not have to make a cliam through my insurance.
I think the problem here is by the looks of it I misused words and they were disected. I was just explaining my experiences with dealing with accidents.
Again, if you're deemed not at fault in a collision, there is no deductible charge.
The words "no-fault" were dissected because so many people take "no fault insurance regime" as meaning something greatly different than what it is.